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AMC MCQ Respiratory Medicine: High-Yield Topics and Pitfalls

Last reviewed: May 2026 | Written by the MplusX Editorial Team

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– In COPD exacerbations, target oxygen saturation is 88–92% — uncontrolled high-flow O2 causes hypercapnic respiratory failure and is a classic AMC MCQ distractor.

– LTOT is indicated when PaO2 <= 55 mmHg on air at rest (confirmed on two measurements at least 3 weeks apart), or <= 60 mmHg if polycythaemia or cor pulmonale is present.

– A silent chest in acute asthma is a pre-arrest sign — escalate immediately to IV MgSO4 2g over 20 minutes and consider intubation threshold.

– In suspected PE during pregnancy, LMWH (enoxaparin) is the treatment of choice — DOACs are contraindicated.

– Lambert-Eaton syndrome (SCLC paraneoplastic) causes proximal weakness that improves with repetition — the opposite of myasthenia gravis; this distinction is repeatedly tested.

– A CURB-65 score >= 3 warrants consideration of ICU-level care — not just hospital admission.

– Ready to drill these topics with exam-format questions? See the Full MplusX Subject Series →

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A 58-year-old man with known COPD is brought in by ambulance after a nurse placed him on 10 L/min O2 at home because his sats dropped to 85%.

On arrival he is drowsy, RR 8, SpO2 98%, pCO2 78 mmHg.

The nurse meant well. The AMC MCQ examiner knows it.

Respiratory medicine is one of the highest-yield content areas in the AMC MCQ exam, appearing across multiple clinical presentations that test your ability to recognise severity, apply guidelines accurately, and avoid the elegant distractors the exam is famous for.

This guide covers every major respiratory topic — from acute asthma to ILD — with clinical classification tables, management algorithms, and scenario-based distractor analysis, all referenced to eTG Complete 2026, RACGP, and current Australian practice.

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1. The AMC MCQ Respiratory Blueprint

Before diving into individual topics, understanding how frequently each area appears helps you prioritise your study time. The table below reflects the distribution pattern seen in AMC MCQ practice materials and candidate feedback.

Topic	AMC MCQ Frequency	Why It’s Tested
Asthma (acute + chronic)	Very High	Severity classification, step-up therapy, critical signs
COPD	Very High	O2 targets, exacerbation management, LTOT thresholds
Community-Acquired Pneumonia	High	CURB-65, atypical organisms, antibiotic selection
Pulmonary Embolism	High	Wells criteria, PERC, investigation pathway, pregnancy
Lung Cancer	Moderate	Histological types, paraneoplastic syndromes
Pleural Effusion	Moderate	Light’s criteria, exudate vs. transudate
ILD	Lower	IPF vs. sarcoidosis pattern recognition

The examiner’s strategy in respiratory medicine is consistent: present a clinical scenario where one piece of data (SpO2, PEFR, urea level, travel history) changes the entire management approach. Candidates who rely on broad pattern recognition rather than numerical thresholds consistently choose the elegant distractor.

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2. Asthma

Severity Classification

The AMC MCQ will give you a clinical vignette and ask you to classify severity or select the next management step. You must know these thresholds without hesitation.

Parameter	Mild	Moderate	Severe	Life-Threatening
SpO2 (air)	>= 95%	92–94%	<92%	<92% + fatigue
Respiratory Rate	Normal	20–25/min	>25/min	Slowing (exhaustion)
PEFR (% predicted)	>75%	50–75%	33–50%	<33% (or unmeasurable)
Speech	Full sentences	Phrases	Words only	Unable to speak
Wheeze	Present	Present	Loud / bilateral	Silent chest
Heart Rate	<100	100–120	>120	Bradycardia (pre-arrest)

Critical point: A silent chest means airflow is so severely reduced that wheeze cannot be generated. It is a pre-arrest sign, not a sign of improvement. This is one of the most commonly misinterpreted findings on the AMC MCQ.

Acute Severe Asthma Management

Management follows a stepwise escalation based on severity. Key AMC MCQ decision points:

• Controlled oxygen: Target SpO2 93–95% (not high-flow unless life-threatening hypoxia)

• Salbutamol 5 mg nebulised every 20 minutes for 3 doses in the first hour; continuous nebulisation if life-threatening

• Ipratropium 0.5 mg nebulised added to salbutamol for moderate-severe presentations (combined neb significantly outperforms salbutamol alone)

• Oral prednisolone 40–50 mg (or IV hydrocortisone 200 mg if unable to swallow) — start immediately, do not delay

• IV MgSO4 2g over 20 minutes — indicated for severe or life-threatening asthma not responding to initial bronchodilators; causes smooth muscle relaxation independent of β2 pathways

• Intubation threshold: Silent chest, exhaustion, falling GCS, or rising pCO2 — call anaesthetics early

Chronic Asthma Step-Up Therapy

The exam may ask you to identify the correct next step when a patient’s asthma is inadequately controlled.

Step	Treatment
Step 1	SABA (salbutamol) as needed only
Step 2	Low-dose ICS (e.g., budesonide 200 mcg/day) + SABA prn
Step 3	ICS/LABA combination (e.g., budesonide/formoterol) + SABA prn
Step 4	Medium-high dose ICS/LABA + LAMA (tiotropium)
Step 5	Add-on biologics (e.g., dupilumab, mepolizumab for severe eosinophilic asthma) — specialist referral

Mermaid Diagram 1: Acute Asthma Severity -> Management Escalation

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3. COPD

Diagnosis

The AMC MCQ will sometimes present a patient with a history of smoking and breathlessness and ask how to confirm COPD. The answer is always post-bronchodilator spirometry showing FEV1/FVC <0.7. You cannot diagnose COPD on clinical grounds alone — this is a frequent distractor where candidates select “clinical diagnosis” based on examination findings.

GOLD Staging by FEV1 % Predicted

GOLD Stage	FEV1 % Predicted	Severity
GOLD 1	FEV1 >= 80%	Mild
GOLD 2	50–79%	Moderate
GOLD 3	30–49%	Severe
GOLD 4	<30%	Very Severe

GOLD staging is used after confirming obstruction (FEV1/FVC <0.7). The exam may also ask about symptom burden scoring (mMRC, CAT) but staging by FEV1 remains the most tested numerical classification.

COPD Exacerbation Management

An exacerbation is defined as an acute worsening of respiratory symptoms beyond normal day-to-day variation requiring a change in medication. Key management points:

Intervention	Detail
Controlled oxygen	Target SpO2 88–92% — not higher. High-flow O2 blunts hypoxic drive and causes CO2 retention. Use Venturi mask (28% or 24%) not nasal prongs at >2 L/min.
Bronchodilators	Salbutamol 2.5–5 mg neb + ipratropium 0.5 mg neb; titrate frequency to response
Corticosteroids	Oral prednisolone 30–40 mg daily for 5 days (eTG Complete 2026) — shorter course has equivalent efficacy
Antibiotics	Indicated if purulent sputum present. First-line per eTG 2026: amoxicillin-clavulanate 875/125 mg BD x 5 days. Doxycycline if penicillin allergy.
NIV (BiPAP)	Consider if pH <7.35 and pCO2 rising despite medical therapy — reduces intubation rates

Long-Term Oxygen Therapy (LTOT)

LTOT is one of the most numerically precise topics in the AMC MCQ. Know these thresholds exactly:

• PaO2 <= 55 mmHg on air at rest -> LTOT indicated

• PaO2 <= 60 mmHg if polycythaemia (Hct >55%) OR cor pulmonale OR pulmonary hypertension -> LTOT indicated

• Must be confirmed on two measurements at least 3 weeks apart during a stable period (not during an exacerbation)

• Minimum 15 hours per day of oxygen use for benefit

• SpO2 alone is insufficient — arterial blood gas is required for LTOT qualification

High-yield distractor: A question presents a COPD patient with SpO2 88% and asks whether LTOT is indicated. The correct answer requires an ABG measurement first — SpO2 does not qualify as the criterion. Choosing “commence LTOT now” without ABG confirmation is the trap.

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4. Community-Acquired Pneumonia

CURB-65 Score

CURB-65 is the cornerstone clinical decision tool for CAP severity and is directly tested on the AMC MCQ.

Criterion	Definition	Points
C — Confusion	New confusion (AMT <= 8 or AMTS disorientation)	1
U — Urea	Blood urea >7 mmol/L	1
R — Respiratory Rate	RR >= 30 breaths/min	1
B — Blood Pressure	Systolic <90 mmHg OR diastolic <= 60 mmHg	1
65 — Age	Age >= 65 years	1
Score	Interpretation	Recommended Setting
—	—	—
0–1	Low severity	Outpatient treatment (home)
2	Moderate severity	Hospital admission
>= 3	High severity	Consider ICU-level care or HDU

Causative Organisms and Clinical Clues

Organism	Clinical Pattern	AMC MCQ Clue
Streptococcus pneumoniae	Lobar pneumonia, productive cough, pleuritic pain, rust-coloured sputum	Commonest CAP organism
Mycoplasma pneumoniae	Young adults, insidious onset, dry cough, CXR worse than clinical findings	Erythema multiforme, cold agglutinins, doxycycline/azithromycin
Legionella pneumophila	Travel history, hotel/spa exposure, hyponatraemia, diarrhoea, confusion	Azithromycin or fluoroquinolone treatment
Staphylococcus aureus	Post-influenza, cavitation, rapid deterioration	Consider MRSA if healthcare-associated
Klebsiella pneumoniae	Alcoholic/immunocompromised, right upper lobe, red currant jelly sputum

eTG 2026 Empirical Treatment

Severity	Preferred Regimen
Mild-moderate CAP (outpatient)	Amoxicillin 1g TDS + doxycycline 100mg BD (orally) x 5–7 days
Moderate CAP (inpatient, non-ICU)	IV benzylpenicillin 1.2g Q6H + doxycycline 100mg BD
Severe CAP (ICU)	IV benzylpenicillin + azithromycin 500mg IV daily; OR moxifloxacin 400mg IV daily as monotherapy
Atypical-only coverage needed	Azithromycin 500mg daily (first dose) then 250mg daily x 4 days

Aspiration Pneumonia

Location depends on patient position at time of aspiration:

• Upright/semi-recumbent: Right lower lobe (most common)

• Supine: Right upper lobe (posterior segment) or bilateral lower lobes

Treatment requires anaerobic cover: amoxicillin-clavulanate (875/125 mg BD) is first-line per eTG 2026. Metronidazole can be added for severe disease or lung abscess.

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5. Pulmonary Embolism

Wells PE Criteria

Criterion	Score
Clinical signs/symptoms of DVT (leg swelling, pain on palpation)	3
PE is the most likely diagnosis or equally likely	3
Heart rate >100 bpm	1.5
Immobilisation >3 days OR surgery in prior 4 weeks	1.5
Previous DVT or PE	1.5
Haemoptysis	1
Malignancy (treatment ongoing or within 6 months)	1
Total Score	Pre-test Probability
—	—
<2	Low
2–6	Moderate
>6	High

PERC Rule

The Pulmonary Embolism Rule-out Criteria (PERC) can exclude PE without imaging if the patient has low pre-test probability (Wells <2) AND all 8 criteria are negative:

1. Age <50 years

2. Heart rate <100 bpm

3. SpO2 >= 95% on room air

4. No unilateral leg swelling

5. No haemoptysis

6. No recent surgery or trauma (within 4 weeks)

7. No prior PE or DVT

8. No exogenous oestrogen use

If ALL eight PERC criteria are met in a low-probability patient, PE is effectively excluded — no D-dimer or CTPA required.

PE Treatment by Clinical Scenario

Scenario	Preferred Treatment
Standard PE (confirmed, haemodynamically stable)	Rivaroxaban 15mg BD x 21 days, then 20mg daily OR apixaban 10mg BD x 7 days, then 5mg BD (eTG 2026)
Severe renal impairment (CrCl <15 mL/min)	UFH infusion + warfarin (overlap until INR 2–3 for 2 consecutive days)
Pregnancy	LMWH (enoxaparin) — DOACs contraindicated
Massive PE with haemodynamic compromise	Thrombolysis (alteplase 100mg IV over 2 hours) — not anticoagulation alone
Subsegmental PE, low clot burden	Anticoagulation (DOAC preferred); consider surveillance in selected cases

Mermaid Diagram 2: Suspected PE — Investigation and Treatment Decision Tree

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6. Lung Cancer

Histological Types — High-Yield Features

Type	Location	Key Features	Paraneoplastic Syndrome
Squamous Cell Carcinoma	Central	Cavitating lesion, associated with smoking, direct bronchial involvement	PTHrP -> hypercalcaemia (commonest cause of malignant hypercalcaemia)
Adenocarcinoma	Peripheral	Most common type overall; pleural effusion; may arise in non-smokers; bronchoalveolar subtype	Rare paraneoplastic
Small Cell Lung Cancer (SCLC)	Central	Rapidly progressive; early metastasis; strongly linked to heavy smoking	SIADH (hyponatraemia), Cushing’s (ectopic ACTH), Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome
Large Cell Carcinoma	Peripheral	Aggressive, rapid growth; diagnosis of exclusion	Gynaecomastia (hCG)

Most Tested AMC MCQ Pattern: SCLC Paraneoplastic Syndromes

SCLC generates paraneoplastic syndromes more than any other lung cancer type. These are disproportionately tested:

SIADH: SCLC secretes ADH -> dilutional hyponatraemia -> serum Na <130 mmol/L, urine inappropriately concentrated (U-osmolality >100 mOsmol/kg). Treatment is fluid restriction; demeclocycline for refractory cases.

Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome (LEMS):

• Proximal muscle weakness (lower limb predominant)

• Weakness IMPROVES with repeated muscle contraction (post-tetanic facilitation) — this is the key distinguishing feature

• Myasthenia gravis: weakness WORSENS with repeated contraction (fatiguability)

• LEMS: absent deep tendon reflexes, autonomic features (dry mouth, impotence)

• 60% of LEMS cases are paraneoplastic — SCLC is by far the commonest association

• AMC MCQ will describe proximal weakness in a smoker and ask you to distinguish LEMS from MG using the repetition finding

Cushing’s Syndrome (ectopic ACTH):

Rapid onset, severe hypokalaemia, metabolic alkalosis, hypertension. CRH suppression test often not suppressible with high-dose dexamethasone. SCLC is the commonest cause of ectopic ACTH.

Pancoast Tumour (Superior Sulcus Tumour)

A Pancoast tumour arises at the apex of the lung (superior sulcus) and invades adjacent structures. The AMC MCQ will describe:

• Horner’s syndrome: ptosis (drooping eyelid), miosis (small pupil), anhidrosis (absent sweating) — ipsilateral; caused by invasion of the sympathetic chain

• Brachial plexus involvement: C8–T2 nerve roots -> wrist and hand pain, ulnar distribution paraesthesia

• Rib/vertebral erosion on imaging

The classic AMC scenario: a smoker with shoulder pain radiating to the arm + Horner’s syndrome = Pancoast tumour -> CT chest + biopsy.

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7. Pleural Effusion and ILD

Light’s Criteria for Exudate vs. Transudate

Light’s criteria are applied to pleural fluid obtained at thoracocentesis. An exudate meets AT LEAST ONE of the following:

Criterion	Threshold
Pleural fluid LDH / Serum LDH ratio	>0.6
Pleural fluid protein / Serum protein ratio	>0.5
Pleural fluid LDH	>2/3 of the upper limit of normal serum LDH
Transudate Causes	Exudate Causes
—	—
Congestive cardiac failure (most common)	Malignancy
Liver cirrhosis	Parapneumonic effusion / empyema
Nephrotic syndrome	Pulmonary embolism
Hypothyroidism	Tuberculosis
Hypoalbuminaemia	Rheumatoid arthritis / SLE

AMC MCQ tip: If Light’s criteria suggest exudate but the clinical picture strongly suggests CCF (e.g., bilateral effusions, cardiomegaly, BNP markedly elevated), consider the serum-to-fluid albumin gradient. A gradient >12 g/L supports transudate despite meeting Light’s exudate criteria — this is the albumin gradient correction.

ILD: IPF vs. Sarcoidosis

These two conditions are regularly tested as pattern-recognition vignettes. Focus on distinguishing features:

Feature	IPF (UIP Pattern)	Sarcoidosis
Demographics	Elderly male (>60 years), smoker	Young-middle adult (20–40), any sex
Symptom onset	Insidious dry cough, progressive dyspnoea	Dyspnoea, sometimes asymptomatic
Auscultation	Bibasal fine velcro crackles	Often clear
CXR / HRCT	Basal honeycombing, traction bronchiectasis, UIP pattern	Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL), perihilar infiltrates
Serum markers	None specific	Elevated serum ACE (not diagnostic but supportive)
Histology	Usual Interstitial Pneumonia (UIP) — temporal heterogeneity	Non-caseating granulomas (unlike TB which caseates)
Extrapulmonary	Finger clubbing, cor pulmonale	Skin (erythema nodosum, lupus pernio), eyes (uveitis), hypercalcaemia
Treatment	Nintedanib or pirfenidone (anti-fibrotic) — not curative	Oral corticosteroids (if symptomatic / organ-threatening)
Prognosis	Poor — median survival 3–5 years	Often self-resolving (Löfgren syndrome in particular)

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8. High-Yield Distractor Deconstruction

The AMC MCQ uses distractors that are almost right. These four scenarios represent the most commonly reported traps from IMGs who have sat the exam.

Scenario 1: COPD + Confusion + High-Flow O2

Stem: A 72-year-old ex-smoker with GOLD Stage 3 COPD is admitted with worsening dyspnoea. A paramedic administered 10 L/min O2 via face mask. On arrival: GCS 13, SpO2 99%, RR 8, pCO2 82 mmHg.

The Trap: Thinking high SpO2 = good management.

Correct Answer: Reduce oxygen immediately to target SpO2 88–92% using a 28% Venturi mask. Obtain ABG. If pH <7.35 with rising pCO2 despite therapy, initiate NIV (BiPAP).

Why: COPD patients with chronic hypercapnia rely on hypoxic drive. Abolishing hypoxia with high-flow O2 removes the stimulus to breathe, worsens CO2 retention, and causes type 2 (hypercapnic) respiratory failure.

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Scenario 2: Pregnant Woman with PE

Stem: A 31-year-old woman at 8 weeks gestation presents with acute dyspnoea and right calf swelling. CTPA confirms PE. She has no renal impairment.

The Trap: Prescribing rivaroxaban (the standard first-line agent in non-pregnant patients).

Correct Answer: LMWH — enoxaparin 1 mg/kg subcutaneously twice daily, adjusted to anti-Xa levels.

Why: DOACs (rivaroxaban, apixaban) cross the placenta and are teratogenic — they are absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy. Warfarin is teratogenic in the first trimester. LMWH does not cross the placenta and is safe throughout pregnancy. This rule applies even if the patient asks for tablets.

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Scenario 3: Atypical Pneumonia with Hyponatraemia

Stem: A 48-year-old man returns from a conference in Singapore. He presents with a 5-day history of dry cough, confusion, diarrhoea, and fever. CXR shows patchy bilateral infiltrates. Na 127 mmol/L.

The Trap: Treating as community-acquired pneumonia with amoxicillin alone.

Correct Answer: Legionella pneumonia — treat with azithromycin 500 mg daily (or levofloxacin). Urinary Legionella antigen confirms Legionella pneumophila serogroup 1 (covers ~80% of cases).

Why: The clinical triad of travel history + hyponatraemia + GI symptoms (diarrhoea, confusion) = Legionella until proven otherwise. Beta-lactam antibiotics have no activity against intracellular organisms. Legionella urine antigen is the fastest confirmatory test.

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Scenario 4: Massive PE with Haemodynamic Compromise

Stem: A 55-year-old man collapses 3 days post-hip replacement. He is hypotensive (BP 75/40 mmHg), HR 130, SpO2 82%. Bedside echo shows a dilated right ventricle with septal D-sign. CTPA confirms massive bilateral PE.

The Trap: Starting anticoagulation alone (therapeutic LMWH or DOAC).

Correct Answer: Systemic thrombolysis with alteplase 100 mg IV over 2 hours + consider catheter-directed thrombolysis or surgical embolectomy if thrombolysis fails or is contraindicated.

Why: Massive PE is defined by haemodynamic compromise (sustained hypotension, shock). Anticoagulation alone does not dissolve existing clot quickly enough to relieve right ventricular outflow obstruction. Thrombolysis is the definitive intervention. Contraindications include active internal bleeding, recent (<3 months) intracranial surgery, or haemorrhagic stroke.

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Frequently Asked Questions

How much of the AMC MCQ is respiratory medicine?

Respiratory medicine accounts for approximately 10–15% of AMC MCQ questions based on candidate feedback and the AMC’s published blueprint. This places it among the top four highest-yield specialty areas, alongside cardiovascular medicine, mental health, and musculoskeletal medicine. Within respiratory, asthma and COPD together represent the majority of questions, with PE and CAP as close runners-up. Candidates who master numerical thresholds (SpO2 targets, LTOT criteria, CURB-65 cut-offs, Wells scores) in these four topics will have covered the majority of respiratory marks available.

What is the most important thing to know about oxygen in COPD?

The single most tested COPD concept on the AMC MCQ is the controlled oxygen target of 88–92% during acute exacerbations. High-flow oxygen suppresses the hypoxic respiratory drive in patients with chronic hypercapnia, leading to progressive CO2 retention, respiratory acidosis, and hypercapnic coma. The 2026 eTG Complete and British Thoracic Society guidance both reinforce Venturi masks (28% or 24%) as the delivery device of choice. Equally important is the LTOT threshold — PaO2 <= 55 mmHg on ABG (not SpO2 alone) confirmed on two occasions at least 3 weeks apart.

How does Legionella pneumonia present differently on the AMC MCQ?

The AMC MCQ will almost always signal Legionella through a combination of three features: a travel history (hotel, cruise ship, spa, air conditioning exposure), hyponatraemia (Na+ often <130 mmol/L due to SIADH), and gastrointestinal symptoms (diarrhoea, nausea, abdominal pain) in addition to respiratory features. The CXR typically shows bilateral patchy infiltrates disproportionately severe compared to the initial clinical impression. Confirm with urinary Legionella antigen (covers serogroup 1, the most common). Treatment per eTG 2026 is azithromycin 500 mg daily or a fluoroquinolone (levofloxacin or moxifloxacin) — beta-lactam antibiotics are ineffective against this intracellular organism.

What is the AMC MCQ approach to pulmonary embolism in pregnancy?

The approach differs critically from non-pregnant patients. In pregnancy, the investigation pathway favours compression ultrasound of the legs first (if DVT confirmed, treat without further imaging). If DVT is not confirmed, a V/Q scan is preferred over CTPA to minimise foetal radiation dose, though CTPA is acceptable if V/Q is unavailable or indeterminate. For confirmed PE or proximal DVT, treatment is LMWH (enoxaparin) throughout pregnancy — adjusted to weight and anti-Xa levels. Rivaroxaban, apixaban, and other DOACs are absolutely contraindicated due to placental transfer and teratogenicity. Warfarin is safe in the second trimester but teratogenic in the first and increases bleeding risk near delivery. Post-partum anticoagulation can include DOACs or warfarin once breastfeeding status is confirmed.

How do I distinguish IPF from sarcoidosis in a clinical vignette?

The AMC MCQ uses pattern recognition for ILD. Focus on three discriminating axes. First, demographics: IPF presents in elderly men (>60) with a smoking history; sarcoidosis presents in younger adults (20–40) of any background, more common in Black individuals. Second, imaging: IPF shows bilateral basal honeycombing with traction bronchiectasis on HRCT (UIP pattern); sarcoidosis shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL) on CXR — the classic “angel wings” appearance. Third, extrapulmonary features: sarcoidosis causes skin (erythema nodosum, lupus pernio), eye (uveitis), and calcium (hypercalcaemia from granuloma-derived 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D) involvement. Serum ACE is elevated in sarcoidosis (though non-specific). IPF has no extrapulmonary features but causes finger clubbing and bibasal velcro crackles.

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Drill Respiratory Medicine Today

Knowing the thresholds is one skill. Applying them under exam pressure — in 90 seconds, against four plausible distractors — is another.

The MplusX question bank includes over 300 respiratory medicine MCQs mapped to eTG 2026, RACGP guidelines, and the AMC exam blueprint. Each question comes with a detailed explanation that deconstructs the correct answer and explains exactly why each distractor is wrong.

Our subject series covers all major AMC MCQ content pillars — cardiovascular, respiratory, gastroenterology, psychiatry, obstetrics, and more — so you can drill systematically rather than randomly.

See the Full MplusX Subject Series →

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Written by the MplusX Editorial Team — dedicated to providing clinically accurate, structured, and practical resources for international medical graduates pursuing licensing with the Australian Medical Council.

References

• John Murtagh’s General Practice (8th Edition): Chapter 25: Cough; Chapter 32: Dyspnoea; Chapter 119: Asthma; Chapter 120: COPD.
• RACGP Red Book (10th edition): Chapter 11: Respiratory disease.
• Therapeutic Guidelines (eTG): Part 2 Respiratory: Asthma, COPD, Respiratory tract infections.

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Disclaimer: This article is written for AMC MCQ examination preparation and general informational purposes only. It does not constitute medical advice, diagnosis, or treatment recommendations. Clinical decisions should always be based on individual patient assessment, current Australian Therapeutic Guidelines (eTG), and consultation with qualified healthcare professionals. MplusX is an exam preparation platform and is not a substitute for supervised clinical training.